## Saturday 7 January 2023

### JE Electrical 2023 Question UPMRCL (LMRC 2022)

JE Electrical 2022 Question UPMRCL Previously known as LMRC,  Exam Date is 03.01.2023 and Exam Time - 09:00 to 11:00

Section 1 - Electrical Engineering MCQ

Q.1 The electromechanical induction meter operates by counting the revolutions of an aluminium disc that is made to rotate at a speed proportional to the .....................

A. voltage
B. resistance
C. power
D. current

Q.2 In a control system, the controlled output is usually indicated by a notation

A. e(t)
B. r(t)
C. b(t)
D. c(t)

Q.3  A generating station, the maximum demand is 50000 kw and the annual load factor is 40% then what is unit generated per annum?

A. 17.52 × 107 kWh
B. 11.88 × 106 kWh
C. 14.92 107 kWh
D. 16.21 × 106 kWh

Answer - A. 17.52 × 107 kWh JE Electrical 2023 Question UPMRCL (LMRC 2022) 03 January 2023

Q.4  The product of normal system voltage and short circuit current of the fault is called ..............

A. shot circuit KVA
B. open circuit KVA
C. short circuit power
D. open circuit power

Answer - A. shot circuit KVA

Q.5  Which of the following methods is used to extend range of watt meter?

A. By using series and parallel combination with current and voltage coil
B. By using instrument transformer conjunction with voltage and current coil
C. By using series resistance on current coil
D. By using series resistance on voltage coil

Answer - B. By using instrument transformer conjunction with voltage and current coil

Q.6 When two systems are connected in parallel, then the overall gain of the system will be:

A. the sum of their individual gains
B. the average gain of their individual gains
C. the ratio of their individual gains
D. the product of their individual gains

Answer - A. the sum of their individual gains

Q.7 Which type of duty is performed by the circuit breaker in normal conditions?

A. Breaking the fault current.
B. It is capable of carrying fault current for short time.
C. Regular ON the circuit for normal current.
D. It is capable of being closed on to a fault.

Answer - C. Regular ON the circuit for normal current.

Q.8  Which of the following is NOT a valid disadvantage of closed loop control system with negative feedback as compared to open loop system?

A. Higher cost
B. Oscillatory response
C. Complicated design
D. Narrow bandwidth

Q.9 Transformer at no-load behaves like:

A. an inductive reactor
B. a capacitive reactor
C. bank of capacitor
D. a resistor

Answer - A. an inductive reactor

Q.10  All the insulating materials have .............................

A. no effect of temperature
B. a negative temperature coefficient of resistance
C. a low resistivity but high conductivity
D. a positive temperature coefficient of resistance

Answer - B. a negative temperature coefficient of resistance

Q.11 The current drawn by a 220V DC motor of armature resistance 1.5 ohms and back EMF 190 V is:

A. 20 A
B. 220 A
C. 200 A
D. 22 A

Q.12 The direction of rotation of a DC motor can be determined using the:

A. Coulomb's Law
B. Fleming's left-hand rule
C. Ampere's law
D. Biot-Savart Law

Answer - B. Fleming's left-hand rule

Q.13  In transformer, hysteresis loss depends on:

A. frequency and thickness of lamination
B. flux density and thickness of lamination
C. time and thickness of lamination
D. flux density and frequency

Answer - D. flux density and frequency

Q.14  A dielectric gas is also known as ..........................

A. low resistivity gas
B. insulating gas
C. charge gas
D. ionized gas

Q.15  Electron-Volt (eV) is the unit of ................................

A. electric power
B. electric energy
C. electric force
D. electric potential

Q.16 When there is a change in the current or magnetic flux of the coil, an electromotive force is induced. This phenomenon is termed as ....................

A. self-inductance
B. transformation
C. mutual inductance
D. capacitance

Q.17  What is the power consumed by a bulb when it is applied 220 V and current flowing through it is 2.2 A?

A. 42.2 W
B. 0.422 MW
C. 0.484 KW
D. 100 W

Q.18 Which of the following applications is done by only AC potentiometer camper to DC potentiometer?

A. Measurement of resistance
B. Measurement of core losses
C. Measurement of current
D. Measurement of voltage

Answer - B. Measurement of core losses

Q.19  Neglecting saturation, if current taken by a series motor is increased from 8 A to 10 A, the percentage increase in its torque is:

A. 18%
B. 10%
C. 36%
D. 20%

Q.20  The shape of induced electro-motive force in the armature conductors of a DC motor is:

A. triangular
B. constant
C. sinusoidal
D. linear

Q.21 Which type of materials is very useful in electrical engineering for the transmission and distribution of electrical energy?

A. High resistivity or high conductivity
B. Low resistivity or high conductivity
C. Low resistivity or low conductivity
D. High resistivity or low conductivity

Answer - B. Low resistivity or high conductivity

Q.22 Which type of device is used to minimize the oscillation of indication measuring device?

A. Weighting device
B. Deflecting device
C. Damping device
D. Controlling device

Q.23 Which of the following diodes is used in forward biased condition?

A. Photo diode
B. Varactor diode
C. LED
D. Zener diode

Q.24 What is the annual depreciation charge if the salvage value of the equipment to be ₹10,000 and the generator costing is ₹90,000 for 20 years?

A.2,000
B. 6,000
C. 8,000
D.
4,000

Q.25 Which type of materials has high resistivity or low conductivity?

A. Copper
B. Tungsten
C. Gold
D. Aluminium

Q.26  Which statement is INCORRECT for mutual inductance?

A. In mutual inductance, out of the two coils, one coil opposes the change in the strength of the current flowing in the other coil.
B. The induced current developed in the neighbouring coil opposes the decay of the current in the coil when the main current in the coil decreases.
C. The induced current developed in the neighbouring coil opposes the growth of current in the coil when the main current in the coil increases.
D. The change in the strength of the current in the coil is opposed by the coil itself by inducing an EMF.

Answer - D. The change in the strength of the current in the coil is opposed by the coil itself by inducing an EMF.

Q.27  A 110 V DC machine has an armature resistance of 2 ohm. If the full load current is 15 A, the difference in induced voltage when the machine is running as a motor, and as a generator is:

A. 60 V
B. 40 V
C. 30 V
D. 50 V

Q.28  Which of the following types of error CANNOT be produced in bridge measurement system?

A. Leakage error
B. Eddy current error
C. Turns ratio error
D. Frequency and wave form error

Answer - C. Turns ratio error

Q.29 Which of the following is correct for ammeter?

A. It has high internal resistance in series.
B. It has high resistance in parallel.
C. It has low internal resistance in series.
D. It has low resistance in parallel.

Answer -C. It has low internal resistance in series.

Q.30 What type of current flows in stator winding and rotor winding of a DC shunt generator?

A. Alternating Current and Alternating Current
B. Direct Current and Direct Current
C. Alternating Current and Direct Current
D. Direct Current and Alternating Current

Answer - D. Direct Current and Alternating Current

Q.31 A direct current series motor is mistakenly connected to a single-phase alternating current supply. The torque generated will be:

A. constant
B. rectangular
C. pulsating and unidirectional
D. twice the normal value

Answer - C. pulsating and unidirectional

Q.32 How can eddy current loss be minimised in Transformer?

A. By using iron core
B. By using steel core
C. By using laminated iron core
D. By using air core

Answer - C. By using laminated iron core

Q.33  In pure silicon if ..................................... is added, n-type semiconductor results.

A. gallium
B. aluminium
C. arsenic
D. indium

Q.34  A transformer has positive voltage regulation when its load power factor is:

B. zero
C. unity
D. lagging

Q.35 At low temperature, a semiconductor virtually behaves like ....................

A. an insulator
B. a conductor
C. a magnet
D. a super conductor

Q.36 In the dynamo-meter, the deflecting torque is directly proportional to the

A. current in moving coil
B. current in both fixed and moving coil
C. voltage applied
D. current in fixed coil

Answer - B. current in both fixed and moving coil

Q.37 Which of the following applications of CRO is INCORRECT?

A. Comparison of phase and frequency
C. Measuring the mutual induction
D. Measuring the current and voltage of AC

Answer -C. Measuring the mutual induction

Q.38 In germanium diode, the ratio of reverse to forward resistance is .....................

A. 400 : 1
B. 4000 : 1
C. 400000:1
D. 40000: 1

Q.39 The number system having the largest base is the ............................. number system.

A. decimal
B. binary
C. octal

Q.40 Which of the following is an intrinsic semiconductor?

A. Bismuth
B. Antimony
C. Germanium
D. Boron

Q.41 Which is defined as changes in charge with respect to time in a conductor?

A. Electric voltage
B. Electric static field
C. Charge density
D. Electric current

Q.42 Which of the following is defining the work done in moving a charge from one pole to another through a wire?

A. Electric current
B. Electric static field
C. Electric potential
D. Electric power

Q.43  Which of the following parts of the CRO is used for controlling the path of beam?

A. Horizontal and vertical deflecting
B. Phosphorescent screen
C. Electron gun
D. Focusing and accelerating anodes

Answer - A. Horizontal and vertical deflecting

Q.44 What is the volt drop allowed for all brushes of each polarity for carbon or graphite brushes in the DC machine?

A. 3 V
B. 1 V
C. 4V
D. 2 V

Q.45  Represent (36)10 as a binary number.

A. (101010)2
B. (101000)2
C. (100100)2
D. (100010) 2

Q.46  In silicon, how many electrons exist in the energy gap?

A. Four
B. Eight
C. Zero
D. Two

Q.47  Three single-phase transformers, each with 50 kVA ratings are connected in delta. If one of the transformers is taken out of service, the capacity of the system will be:

A. 173.2 KVA
B. 86.6 KVA
C. 57.7 KVA
D. 100 KVA

Q.48 An 11000/110 V, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer has an exciting current of 0.8 A and a core loss of 440 watts when its h. v. side is energized at rated voltage. The core loss component of the existing current is:

A. 0.08 A
B. 0.04 A
C. 0.06 A
D. 0.02 A

Q.49 Which of the following is an example of a sequential circuit?

A. Encoder
B. Comparator
C. Counters
D. Multiplexer

Q.50  Which of the following is the cost that depends upon maximum demand but is independent of units generated?

A. Running cost
B. Semi-fixed cost
C. Full cost
D. Fixed cost

Q.51 The maximum efficiency occurs in a separately excited DC generator when the terminal voltage is 110 V and the induced emf is 120 V, the stray losses, if the armature resistance is 0.5 ohm, will be:

A. 150 W
B. 100 W
C. 200 W
D. 250 W

Q.52  Convert (0.75)10 into binary.

A. (0.011)2
B. (0.10)2
C. (0.11)2
D. (0.101)2

Q.53  Which is the correct equivalent unit of Ampere?

A. Coulomb per second
B. Coulomb per volt
C. Charge meter per second
D. Charge per meter

Q.54  In control systems, the differentiator is represented by:

A. s²
B. 1/s2
C. S
D. 1/s

Q.55  State whether the given statements with reference to the non-linear control systems are true or false.

1. Non-linear system can be analysed with the Lyapunov stability criteria.
2. Non-linear system does not fulfil superposition principle.

A. 1-False, 2-True
B. 1-True, 2-True
C. 1-True, 2-False
D. 1-False, 2-False

Q.56  Which is correct for induction motor?

A. Difficulty in operation
B. Affected by temperature variation
C. Incorrect registration even at very low power factor
D. Cheap in cost

Answer - D. Cheap in cost

Q.57  Which of the equipment is consisting in megger instruments?

A. Current source and voltmeter
B. Voltage source and voltmeter
C. Current source and ammeter
D. Voltage source and ammeter

Answer -B. Voltage source and voltmeter

Q.58  Which is correct for low-conductivity conducting material?

A. High resistivity
B. High conducting material
C. Low resistivity
D. Low resistance

Q.59  Compared to glass insulators the mechanical strength of porcelain insulators is .............

A. the same
B. very high
C. half
D. very low

Q.60  Which type of instrument is used in moving coil as the controlling and damping device?

A. Electro-dynamic
B. Electrostatic
C. Moving iron
D. Thermocouple

Q.61  If supply frequency in a transformer is doubled by keeping V/f ratio constant.

A. Maximum flux density decreases
B. Core losses increase
C. Eddy current loss decreases
D. Hysteresis loss decreases

Q.62  What energy is produced by a 9 V battery that moves the charge 15 coulombs around the circuit?

A. 1.4 joule
B. 270 joule
C. 135 joule
D. 25.6 joule

Q.63 Which type of electrostatic voltmeter usually ranges from 30 V to 300 V?

B. Disk type
C. Multicellular type
D. Attracted disc type

Q.64  In case of full wave bridge rectifiers, maximum efficiency is ..................... and ripple factor is ..................

A. 40.6%, 1.21
B. 40.6%, 0.48
C. 81.2%, 1.21
D. 81.2%, 0.48

Q.65 The maximum efficiency of a single-phase transformer for a constant load current occurs at:

A. 0.8 lagging power factor
B. unity power factor
C. 0.6 lagging power factor

Answer - B. unity power factor

Q.66  In a control system, reference input is the ..............value of the controlled variable.

A. maximum
B. minimum
C. desired
D. random

Q.67  The word 'diode' is used to indicate that the device has

A. two electrodes
B. two anodes
C. two junctions
D. two cathodes

Q.68  Under load conditions, the efficiency of two identical transformers can be measured by:

A. Sumpner's test
B. High potential test
D. Blocked Rotor test

Q.69  In which type of component impedance is limiting the fault current mostly resistive?

A. Generator
B. Transformer
C. Reactor
D. Cables

Q.70 Which of the following conditions is correct for rest of pointer in indicating instrument?

A. Deflection torque is equal to controlling torque.
B. Cannot be defined.
C. Deflection torque is greater than controlling torque.
D. Deflection torque is less than controlling torque.

Answer - A. Deflection torque is equal to controlling torque.

Q.71 According to Ohm's law, which is a constant component when voltage is proportional to the current in a conductor?

A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance

Q.72  Which type of method is used only to measure the power of a single-phase system?

A. One wattmeter method
B. Polyphase wattmeter
C. Two wattmeter method
D. Three wattmeter method

Answer - A. One wattmeter method

Q.73 The permeability of a ferromagnetic material is .............

A. very high
B. high
C. low
D. very low

Q.74  Which type of meter gives the response for AC only?

A. Electrostatic
B. Moving coil
C. Rectifier
D. Thermocouple

Q.75 The output of a 2-input logic gate goes high only when both inputs are low, else it remains low. Which gate it is?

A. XOR
B. NAND
C. AND
D. NOR

#### SSC CGL Tier 1 General Awareness MCQ [Exam Date 01.12.2022] Shift-1,2,3 & 4

Q.76  Convert (1011011010)2 into the hexadecimal number.

B. (DA2)16
C. (2DA)16

Q.77  When decreasing the load factor from 100% to 50%, then fixed charges/kWh have

A. Increased two-fold.
B. Increased single-fold.
C. Decrease single-fold.
D. Decrease two-fold.

Q.78 Which is NOT used to increase the value of current that is measured by moving iron AC ammeter?

A. Horizontal
B. Perpendicular
C. Shunt
D. Series

Q.79 Which type of error is produced by induction type of watt meter when it does NOT read correctly at all power factors?

A. Phasor error
B. Creeping
C. Speed error
D. Frictional error

Q.80  What happens if the DC supply is applied to the transformer?

A. The resistance of the primary winding is quite high.
B. The current of the primary winding is high.
C. The current of the primary winding is quite low.
D. The current of the secondary winding is quite low.

Answer - B. The current of the primary winding is high.

Q.81 What is the short circuit current in the power system when a symmetrical fault occurs if 25% reactance of the 2500 kVA base system has a full load current is 20 A corresponding to base kVA?

A. 76A
B. 96A
C. 80A
D. 55A

Q.82 Which type of quantity is INCORRECT for measurement by multi-tester?

A. Continuity
B. Wattage
C. Voltage
D. Resistance

Q.83 Two systems with their individual gains as 10 and 20 are cascaded. Find the overall gain.

A. 30
B. 100
C. 20
D. 200

Q.84  Which of the following defines the unit of electric power?

A. Volt-ampere
B. Newton-meter
C. Watt-second
D. Joule/meter

Q.85  What is the advantage of high load factor in a generation station?

A. Reduces the variable load problem
B. High generating cost to other
C. Higher voltage regulation
D. Per unit cost of generation can be increased

Q.86  Which of the following equipment is a permit to separate the generator, feeders and circuit breakers from the bus bar for maintenance?

A. Lightning arrester
B. Circuit breaker
C. Isolator
D. Fuse

Q.87 A negative feedback closed loop control system has input of 10 V, forward gain of 1 and feedback gain of 3. Find the output voltage.

A. 7.5 V
B. 10.0 V
C. 5.0 V
D. 2.5 V

Q.88  Which of the following is an INCORRECT type of watt meter?

A. Induction
B. Dynamo meter
C. Motor meter
X D. Electrostatic

Q.89  The portion of the system that is to be controlled or regulated is known as

A. feedback
B. reference
C. plant
D. Comparator

Q.90  The function of a DC motor starter is to:

A. avoid dips in the supply voltage
B. limit the starting current
C. increase the starting torque
D. start the DC motor

Answer - B. limit the starting current

Section 2 : Quantitative Aptitude and Logical Ability

Q.1  Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

A. UXBG
B. SVZD
C. XAEJ
D. TWAF

Q.2  Prerna places her clock on the study table in such a way, that the hour hand points to the south at 3 p.m. In which direction will the minute hand point at 6.53 a.m.?

A. South-west
B. North
C. North-east
D. South

Q.3  R and S are a married couple. A and V are brothers. S is the only sister of V. V is married to U and X is the only son of V. How is S related to X?

A. Paternal aunt
B. Maternal aunt
C. Maternal uncle
D. Sister

Q.4  Let x = (4 1/4× (256)1/4) ÷ 83 1/6 and y = (729) 1/5 ÷ 3 1/5, then what is the value of xy?

A. 3√√2
B. 12
C. 18
D. 2√3

Q.5  Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. CHAIR: EEFBC :: TABLE : ?

A.VXGFO
B. VXGEP
C. VXGEO
D.VXGFP

Q.6  In a class of 100 students, Bhavya's rank is 50th from the top and Shivani's rank is 68th from the bottom. If no two persons get the same rank, how many students are there between the ranks of Bhavya and Shivani?

A. 18
B. 82
C. 80
D. 16

Q.7  A pressure cooker, the marked price of which is ₹1,200, is available for ₹939.12 after two successive discounts of n% and 9%. What is the value of n?

A. 14
B. 9.8
C. 12
D. 10.5

Q.8  If 'wall' is called 'window', 'window' is called 'door', 'door' is called 'floor', 'floor' is called 'ceiling' and 'ceiling' is called 'ceiling'. If it is called a 'skylight', then from which source a person will get fresh air?
यदि 'दीवार' को 'खिड़की' कहा जाता है, 'खिड़की' को 'दरवाजा' कहा जाता है, 'दरवाजा' को 'फर्श' कहा जाता है, 'फर्श' को 'छत' कहा जाता है और 'छत' को 'रोशनदान' कहा जाता है, तो किस स्रोत से व्यक्ति को ताजी हवा मिलेगी?

A. फर्श
B. दरवाजा (
door)
C. छत
D. खिड़की (window)

Q.9  An empty cistern is in the form of a right circular cone with radius 350 cm and height 9 m. If water is let in at the rate of 5 cu. decimeter per 2 seconds, how long will it take to fill the cistern (in minutes)?

A. 800
B. 752
C. 770
D. 784

Q.10  If 15% of a first number is equal to the three-fifth of the second number, what is the ratio of the first number to the second number?

A. 2:5
B. 4:1
C. 5:2
D. 1:4

Q.11  If 6 stands for 3 and 4 stands for 5, then which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following expression?
34+108÷? - 61 × 12 + 58 = -276

A. 6
B. 18
C. 9
D. 12

Q.12  Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
No pasta is a pizza
All pizzas are candies
Some candies are pastas

Conclusions:
I. Some pizzas are pastas
II. Some pastas are candies
III. Some candies are pizzas

A. Conclusions II and III follow
B. Conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion III follows
D. Only conclusion II follows

Answer -A. Conclusions II and III follow

Q.13  A and B can do a work in 6 days, whereas B and C can do the same work in 9 days. It is known that B is twice as efficient as C. How many days will it take for A, B and C to finish the entire work together?

A.  4. 7/9
B.  5. 1/6
C.  5. 3/7
D.  4 . 10/11

Answer - D. 4 . 10/11 or 54/11

Q.14  A train overtakes two boys, who are walking in the same direction as the train is moving, at the rate of 5 km/h and 7 km/h in 6 seconds and 9 seconds, respectively. Find the length of the train.

A. 15 m
B. 14 m
C. 10 m
D. 12 m

Q.15  If 18,500 amounts to 22,385 in 2 years at x% per annum of compound interest, then the value of x is:

A. 11.00
B. 10.00
C. 10.50
D. 11.50

Q.16  If the last 10 letters in the following string are removed and become the first 10 letters, then how many letters will be there between 'B' and 'D'?
T W E K D P S L Z U B Y S Q N R G J

A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 13

Q.17  The price of a toy is first increased by 28% and then again increased by 20%. After that, the price decreased by 45%. If its final price is ₹422.40, then 35% of its original price (in) is:

A. 182
B. 157
C. 175
D. 168

Q.18  What is the average of 18², 19², 20², ......., 30²?

A. 590
B. 498
C. 591
D. 499

Q.19  Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 83, 62, 74, 64, ?, 66, 62

A. 61
B. 67
C. 63
D. 65

Q.20  In a 4-week exhibition sale, a stall owner has to pay a fixed amount of *24,000 irrespective of the number of items sold. He sells 4,000 terracotta lamps whose cost price is ₹144 per lamp. He sells 3,200 lamps in the first three weeks at 160 per lamp, and in the last week he sells the remaining lamps at ₹96 per lamp. What is his overall gain or loss percentage (approx.)?

A. 1.78% loss
B. 1.87% gain
C. 1.68% gain
D. 1.87% loss

Section: General English

Q.1  Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence. Vishwa's research proposal is ready; he just needs to read and check all the details carefully.

A. cross his t's and dot his i's
B. creakingdoor hangs long on its hinges
C. bread always falls on the buttered side
D. be a long drink of water

Answer - A. cross his t's and dot his i's

Q.2  Select the most appropriate conjunction to fill in the blank. Not only did he lose the game, ............  he also started the fight.

A. or
B. nor
C. and
D. but

Q.3  Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Lecherous

A. Untidy
B. Unkempt
C. Uncouth
D. Lustful

Q.4  Select the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank. The Charles River flows ................ Boston.

A. of
B. with
C. for
D. through

Q.5  Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Turning a deaf ear

A. Listening loudly
B. Turning deaf
C. Refusing to listen
D. Beating drum

Answer - C. Refusing to listen

Q.6  Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
P) I follow him on hands and knees through a low tunnel, part of a network of five miles of passages that workers burrowed beneath the pyramid in the 27th century B.C. Q) The air is redolent of mud and dust.
R) Hawass alights on the subterranean floor and shines a flashlight on the Pharaoh
Djoser's granite sarcophagus.
S) "The dead king had to go through these tunnels to fight wild creatures until he could become Osiris, the god of the underworld,” he tells me, stepping back into the sunlight.

A. RSPQ
B. RQSP
C. SPQR
D. RQPS

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. " Mortification "

A. Humiliation
B. Fear
C. Humility
D. Mortality

Q.8  The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. This scheme / will help in / realise the goals / of food for all.

A. will help in
B. realise the goals
C. This scheme
D. of food for all

Answer - B. realise the goals

Q.9  Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

a) kindly send the details
b) regarding point no. 1
c) within a week
d) it is requested to

A. BDAC
B. DBCA
C. DABC

Q.10  Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
P) Many carnivores, such as dogs and cats, have no amylase in their saliva; therefore,
their natural diet contains very little starch.
Q) Saliva dissolves some of the chewed food and acts as a lubricant, facilitating passage through the subsequent portions of the digestive tract.
R) Saliva also contains a starch-digesting enzyme called amylase (ptyalin), which
initiates the process of enzymatic hydrolysis; it splits starch (a polysaccharide
containing many sugar molecules bound in a continuous chain) into molecules of the double sugar maltose.
S) Substances must be in solution for the taste buds to be stimulated; saliva provides the solvent for food materials.

A. PQRS
B. SPRQ
C. RSPQ
D. QRPS

Section : General Awareness

Q.1  What is the child sex ratio (for 0 to 6 years) of Haryana as per the census 2011?

A. 899
B. 902
C. 834
D. 861

Q.2 On the basis of embryonic layers, animals are classified into:

A. diploblastic and triploblastic
B. echinoderms and chordates
C. phylum chordata and non-chordates
D. acoelomates and coelomates

Answer -  A. diploblastic and triploblastic

Q.3 A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court with a ........................... majority ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India comes under the purview of the Right to Information Act.

A. 4:3
B. 3:2
C. 3:1
D. 2:1

Q.4  According to the Law of Variable Proportions, for the short-run production function, which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the relationship between Average Product (AP) and Marginal Product (MP)?
I. So long as MP curve lies above AP curve, the AP curve slopes upward. That is, AP rises, when MP > AP.
II. At the point of intersection of MP and AP curves, the AP curve slopes downwards and MP < AP.

A. Only II
B. Both I and II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Only I

Q.5  The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) under the Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR) inked an MoU with _____, a Russia-based company, for the commercialisation of biocapsule, an encapsulation technology for bio-fertilisation, on 30 June 2022.

A. Lysterra, LLC
B. Valero VLS
C. Chevron CHN
D. Berkshire BSK

Q.6  Which of the following is NOT used as a food preservative?

A. Sodium benzoate
B. Aspartame
C. Table salt
D. Sugar

Q.7  Which of the following schemes has the highest allocation in the 2021-22 budget at €73,000 crore?

A. MGNREGA
B. Decentralised Procurement Scheme
C. FCI Food Subsidy
D. Urea Subsidy

Q.8  Which of these Buddhist temples is correctly matched with the place where it is located?

B. Golden Pagoda Temple - Andhra Pradesh
C. Mahaparinirvana Temple - Kushinagar\
D. Red Maitreya Temple - Srinagar

Answer - C. Mahaparinirvana Temple - Kushinagar

Q.9  According to NITI Aayog 's Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which state of India registered the second highest poverty of 42.16% of population in 2021?

C. Jharkhand
D. Bihar

Q.10  As per the Prison Statistics India 2021 report of the National Crime Records Bureau, the occupancy rate of prisons has increased from 118% in 2020 to .................... in 2021.

A. 120.2%
B. 125.2%
C. 130.2%
D. 132.2%

Q.11  What was the drug launched by Natco Pharma under the brand BRECITA to treat epilepsy in the country in February 2022?

A. Epicaracetam
B. Lamaracetum
C. Brivaracetam
D. Nataracetam

Q.12  The Citizenship Act, 1955 (with effect from 10 January 2020) provides Indian Citizenship to migrants who have entered into India up to which of the following cut of dates?

A. 31 November 2015
B. 31 November 2014
C. 31 December 2015
D. 31 December 2014

Answer - D. 31 December 2014

Q.13  Javadi hills are an extension of the:

A. eastern ghats
B. western ghats
C. Himalayan range
D. Aravalli range

Q.14  Which of the following dances was included in the list of the UNESCO Heritage Dances in the year 2010?

A. Santhal
B. Chhau
C. Daandiya Raas
D. Sattriya

Q.15  Which of the following institutions has developed Overhauser Magnetometers as part of its technology development program in October 2022?

A. Agharkar Research Institute, Pune
B. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism, Mumbai
C. Raman Research Institute, Bangalore

Answer -B. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism, Mumbai

Q.16  In which city was the Durand Cup 2022 final held in September 2022?

A. Mumbai
B. Jaipur
C. Bengaluru
D. Kolkata

Q.17  Which of the following is the full form MISA?

A. Maintenance of International Security Act
B. Monitoring International Security Act
C. Maintenance of Internal Security Act
D. Minimizing the Independent Security Act

Answer - C. Maintenance of Internal Security Act

Q.18  Who is the writer of one of the earliest musical treatises 'Brihaddeshi'?

A. Matanga
B. Haripala
D. Ramamatya

Q.19  Annie Besant, who was made the Congress President in 1917, began to take a conciliatory attitude towards the moderate, particularly after the announcement of the ........................ proposals, and put the passive resistance programme on hold.

A. Ilbert Bill
B. Doctrine of Lapse
C. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Indias Councils Act

Q.20  Which of the following is the first country in the world to approve commercial cultivation of Golden Rice?

A. Sri Lanka
B. India
C. Thailand
D. Philippines